Try the truth, in the first place. That way you won't have to cover up your lies with more lies. Of course it is not true that "all the northern states were slave states at one time". When you realized you'd lied, you tried to correct it with another lie (i.e., "all the original northern states"). You are now using a euphemism for the original Colonies. Please bear in mind that the 13 Colonies, North and South, were under British rule. There was never a time in United States history when all the northern states were slave states. If you are referring to the British Colonies please be forthright about that. And please also note ALL the Colonies, North and South. Colonies are not the same as States. For your edification, from wiki:
"In the 1770s, blacks throughout New England began sending petitions to northern legislatures demanding freedom. Five of the Northern self-declared states adopted policies to at least gradually abolish slavery: Pennsylvania (1780), New Hampshire and Massachusetts (1783), Connecticut and Rhode Island (1784). Vermont abolished slavery in 1777, while it was still independent, and when it joined the United States as the 14th state in 1791 it was the first state to join untainted by slavery. These state jurisdictions thus enacted the first abolition laws in the Americas. By 1804 (including, New York (1799), New Jersey (1804)), all of the northern states had abolished slavery or set measures in place to gradually reduce it."
In jeffersondem's defense - and I still cannot believe I'm saying that - if we trace the creation of the original 13 states to the Continental Congress and the Declaration of Independence then strictly speaking all of them abolished slavery after they became states. On the other hand, if we trace states back to the ratification of the Constitution then you are correct and five Northern states and Vermont had abolished slavery before then.
That is an interesting comment that, as an old country boy, I have no idea how to respond other than to refer the matter to our founding fathers.
“Action of Second Continental Congress, July 4, 1776, The unanimous Declaration of the thirteen United States of America.”
When in the Course of human events . . .”
Such has been the patient Sufferance of these Colonies; . . .”
. . . of an absolute Tyranny over these States.”
. . . the State remaining in the mean time exposed to all the Dangers . . .”
He has endeavoured to prevent the Population of these States; . . .”
For protecting them, by a mock Trial, from Punishment for any Murders which they should commit on the Inhabitants of these States;”
. . . so as to render it at once an Example and fit Instrument for introducing the same absolute Rule into these Colonies;”
We, therefore, the Representatives of the United States of America . . .”
by Authority of the good People of these Colonies, solemnly Publish and Declare, That these United Colonies are, and of Right ought to be, Free and Independent States . . .”
And so forth and so on.
It seems to me the founding fathers were using the terms colonies and states interchangeably. And by the close of business on July 4, 1776 the colonies were states.
And on that date all 13 of the states were slave states.
But if you have evidence that DoodleDawg and I are wrong about this let's see it.