In this context Rules = Laws; and you knew that, in spite of your attempt at obfuscation. And besides - in spite of your professed ignorance, there are laws of logic.
But I will humor you - where did the rules come from? How can we be certain of them? How do we know they will always apply? Without this confidence, science is impossible.
Why can we be certain that two contradictory statements cannot be true at the same time? How can we be confident that the rules will apply tomorrow?
How do you know that 6 rocks today will be the same number tomorrow?
It is all information.
Where did the information in our DNA come from? How is information added in order to evolve from a simple life-form into more complex life forms?
Information theory states: “there is no known law of nature, no known process and no known sequence of events that can cause information to originate by itself in matter” it further states: “When its progress along the chain of transmission events is traced backward, every piece of information leads to a mental source, the mind of the sender.”
The SETI Project depends entirely on these two theorems.
Therefor, Two sciences, Genetics (information contained in DNA) and Information Theory (information is not spontaneously generated but originates from a mind - confirmed by scientists on the SETI Project) establish (because, taken together they demand) the existence of a source mind - God. (Logic and mathematics, upon which all science must necessarily depend, consist of specifically defined and arranged information.)
So if math describes what is observable in nature, how is it that this is so? Why is the circumference of a circle always 2pi*r? and the area pi*(r squared)? And why is it that integral calculus perfectly explains the relationship between the radius and circumference of all circles for all time?
So - did math exist before humans, and did humans just discover these concepts, or was math simply an invention of man; and therefor fallible? Ditto logic. If simply an invention of man, were circles different before someone created math? could x and not x both be true before man invented the laws of logic? If an invention of man, by what power are these laws held universally and eternally consistent,since the inventor is not able to be in all places at once, nor is he able to be in all time?
Therefor, it is illogical and unscientific to conclude other than that science confirms the existence of God.
I think you’re confusing me with someone who disagrees with you.
I wasn’t trying to obfuscate. I think of laws (other than manmade laws) as things that exist whether man does or not. Logic doesn’t exist without us (OK, God is logical, but that’s a different discussion) so I refer to them as rules. It’s just semantics.