I do disagree. In the Gospels people worshipped Jesus Christ. Any Jew of the time would tell us only God receives worship; forgives sins.
The opposite argument is this...If Jesus Christ was a divine being other than Deity, thus God, then the Jews of His time would not worship Him thus setting up a violation of Exodus 20.
So I think your overall premise and entry argument are flawed.
Thus the need to look for obscure definitions in the lexicon, use paraphrase and dynamic equivalent Bibles; and in some cases replace an entire word (like theos) with another with absolutely no valid reason.
John 1 is clear. Unless theos is being used three different ways in the same passage. If that is the case then the Psalm 82 argument falls apart.
To repeat myself: Jesus himself, in John 10:34 quotes Psalms 82:6 where human beings are called "gods".
It's a title of highest respect, not a suggestion of equality with the Almighty.
Likewise, the Old Testament term for "worship" is the same word used for bowing down to a king.
It does not mean the human king is God.
redleghunter: "If Jesus Christ was a divine being other than Deity, thus God, then the Jews of His time would not worship Him thus setting up a violation of Exodus 20."
Seems clear to me that the earliest Christians saw Jesus as the Son of God, sent by God to be their Messiah/Christ.
As such, he was divine/deity, but not God Himself.
Yes, I "get" that might cause certain theological problems in the minds of ancient Greek philosophers or Roman politicians, but I don't think such problems concerned the earliest Christians, or our Founding Fathers, or many believers today.
That's why I don't think any of those people should be condemned as "God Damned Heretics".
Do you?