FRiend, the explanation is there, in post #2,255, if you care to study & understand.
You start at John 10:34 which refers specifically to Psalms 82:6 and can be applied also to Psalm 45:6.
That is the context for John 20:28.
Here's my conclusion: in John 20:28 Thomas refers to Jesus in the same sense as Jesus refers to himself in John 10:34, using the sense of "gods" from Psalms 82:6.
How could it possibly be otherwise?
To me that makes perfectly good sense, especially since it reconfirms what the gospel writer John himself says in John 20:31.
And it takes 2 John 1:9 as cautionary.
Of course, I don't expect you to agree, am only asking you to treat this view with more respect than we've seen elsewhere: it's called, "God Damned Heresy".
My ideas here reflect religious views of our Founding Fathers, plus around 50 million believers today who fall under the category of "restoration Christians".
I don't think they deserve the disrespect.
Jesus did not align Himself with the Psalm 82 reference to “gods” He was contrasting the use of Psalm 82 with His authority. Another point is within context they were receivers of The Word, as opposed to the actual Word standing in front of them. This is consistent with John 1.
My ideas here reflect religious views of our Founding Fathers, plus around 50 million believers today who fall under the category of “restoration Christians”. I don’t think they deserve the disrespect.
***Heresy deserves the disrespect that Christ heaped upon it, He called false teachers such as yourself ‘sons of the devil’. No doubt you would consider Christ not to be Christlike when He says so.