Honestly, in my short time posting here on FR, I have noticed the responses to refute proof texts involve creative gymnastics to ignore what the lexicon clearly states. For example, in John 20:28 "theos" is well theos not something else. Here is just a sample to examine:
John 20:
26 And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace be unto you. 27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing. 28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
When I asked for an explanation of why did Thomas call Jesus Christ "my God" these were the answers I received:
-the first answer was "Thomas was actually saying like we do today 'OMG' or oh my, your back!" Well there are a couple of problems with this interpretation given the first should suffice. That being something Thomas would be aware of since he was an itinerant Jew: “You shall not take the name of the Lord your God in vain, for the Lord will not hold him guiltless who takes His name in vain." Now of course in our times we think using God's Name in vain is using it with a curse word, but to Thomas and Jews of his era, saying "God" for other than prayer or song was a violation of Exodus 20, which contains what many call "The Big 10."
-The second answer received when I refuted the first rather silly answer, was "Thomas really did not mean "God" but there is a better interpretation or explanation." Of which I was told Thomas 'really' said "Lord or Master." Of which I refuted given the lexicon for "God" in John 20:28 is "theos" and not "kyrios" which is Lord or Master and a few other honorific titles. So Thomas clearly was not saying "My Lord and my Lord (Master)." That would be redundant and make no sense. So, clearly "God" in John 20:28 IS "theos". Based on the lexicon the choices for "theos"(G2316) are: God; a god; goddess; godly. So since those who deny Jesus Christ is Truly God and Truly man don't see Thomas actually saying "My God" but something else, the choices remaining are clearly either a god or godly. When I asked "which is it then?" I received no reply other than why I was so focused on Thomas. Which of course I took as a duck and cover response. Why? Because this is a clear case where some ignore the actual Greek word used for "God", "theos."
-The third response I received was that "there is a much better explanation for this passage because there was 'no way' Thomas could come to the conclusion Jesus Christ was God." When I asked for that "better explanation" again I never got one, other than "you can't see it because you are blind." Well that was interesting but still no answer.
Since I received no answers with regards to the use of "theos", I decided maybe a different passage would be better. I then asked who exactly was tempted in Matthew chapter 4? The Father or Jesus Christ? The answer I received was "you can't see it because you are blind."
Perhaps someone else would like to take a swing at what I presented.
You are the one reading it the way i believe the Holy Spirit intended, which is evident in examining the entire gospel, in which John is revealing Christ to be the Divine Son of God, as in light from light, true God from true God, versus those who deny the Deity of Christ. Bless God.
It’s about the same on this thread.
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/news/3069049/posts?page=2255#2255
I already (briefly) addressed your quote from John 20:28 in my post #2,197.
If you wish a more detailed discussion, we can do that, but I'd have to ask you: why?
There is no possibility my words could change your mind, and that is not my intention.
I am only here to defend the views of many Founding Fathers, who were Freemasons, Unitarians or otherwise deistically influenced Christians.
If I can get you to treat their views with a modicum of respect (see Kevmo's post #1,983), then my purpose is accomplished.