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To: BroJoeK

You’re wrong again, heretic.

From another thread, some interesting insight into your nonsense.

To: redleghunter

“Was Thomas wrong? Was he rebuked for calling Jesus Christ God? John 20:28 And Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!”

Here the word “God” derived from the Greek term “Theos” had broader usage than what is customary today, and was used to describe a range of authorities, and was not limited to a personal name for the supreme Deity.

Note the term was used to describe the Roman Governer in Acts 12:22, and even Satin in 2 Corinthians. 4:4, and Moses in Exodus 7:1.

At the time “God” was also a commonly used term for authority.

55 posted on Tue 24 Dec 2013 08:05:54 AM PST by ScottfromNJ
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To: ScottfromNJ; GarySpFc
Here the word “God” derived from the Greek term “Theos” had broader usage than what is customary today, and was used to describe a range of authorities, and was not limited to a personal name for the supreme Deity. Note the term was used to describe the Roman Governer in Acts 12:22, and even Satin in 2 Corinthians. 4:4, and Moses in Exodus 7:1. At the time “God” was also a commonly used term for authority.

That is a nice internet site answer but replacing words in the lexicon with others is a sure fine sign of a cult trying to justify a spurious claim or trying to deflect.

Thomas said “theos” which is God everywhere else meaning God. In John 1 “theos” is God. Everywhere in John’s Gospel “theos” is God. There is no precedence to change the meaning of “theos” to other than God in this passage.

Unless it is your position that Thomas is stating Jesus is a demigod. Is that your position? Because that is the only explanation for another use of “theos” within the context.

In Acts 12:22 the context is Herod had a voice as a “god.” So not a very good retort to an emphatic “My Lord AND my God!” I mean for Thomas there was only One God, or perhaps I missed the portions of the NT where they discuss a pantheon of sorts.

You may want to go to the site where you dug up this ‘answer’ and tell them to keep trying. Changing meanings using Jedi mind tricks of the lexicon is unconvincing and quite a signal there is no response to Thomas saying “My Lord and my God.” The disciples used several other honorifics when addressing Jesus, and “theos” in the manner of other than God is never used. As with Peter’s confession in Matthew 16, we see here in John 20 a disciple reveals a Truth about the Son of God is Truly God and truly man.
56 posted on Tue 24 Dec 2013 09:02:57 AM PST by redleghunter
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To: ScottfromNJ; GarySpFc

When was the Son of God begotten? Did the Son always exist or is He a created being like the angels?

57 posted on Tue 24 Dec 2013 09:05:44 AM PST by redleghunter
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To: redleghunter

“Thomas said “theos” which is God everywhere else meaning God.”

Wrong. Read another example of “theos” where the term is used for men in Psalm 82.

58 posted on Tue 24 Dec 2013 09:46:32 AM PST by ScottfromNJ
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To: ScottfromNJ; GarySpFc
Wrong. Read another example of “theos” where the term is used for men in Psalm 82.

Again you have to manipulate the lexicon to draw a different conclusion. What Bible version are you using? I ask because “theos” is not in the OT Hebrew.

If you are using what the Eastern Orthodox use in the LXX the “gods” of Psalm 82 is plural. If you are making a corrolation between the use of “my God” and the “gods” of Psalm 82, then explain your version of the pantheon of Christianity.

When Thomas said “My Lord and my God” it was not ‘my Lord and one of the gods; or a god.” To apply your example, it would result in Thomas calling Jesus “his” ‘god’ therefore going against the knowledge Thomas had of the Law which says there is only “One True God.” So you have to change the Hebrew and Greek lexicons everywhere else in Scriptures to fit your excuse that Thomas did not mean God, but “gods.” Makes no sense at all and seems to be a “hail Mary pass” to explain away an actual profession by Thomas that Jesus Christ is Lord AND God.

Which brings us to the point again if Jesus is not Truly God and Truly man, then what Nature does He have? Is He a demigod, a god with a small ‘g’, or just a man who for a time had the Presence of God? Using your selection of verses and associated lexicon, then when should a translator use “God” for “’elohiym”? Of course each literal translation which employs multiple Greek and Hebrew scholars must determine when to use “God” vs. “angels” or “divine ones” or “judges” for “’elohiym” based on the context. The very same for “theos” in singular for “God” and the plural “gods.”

And to be clear on the matter, we do not have any apostle or believer using “theos” outside of it referring to God Almighty. And that was exactly what Thomas knew and proclaimed. He said “My Lord and my God.” So again, if Jesus was not God with a capital “G” then what is He? Was the Son of God created or the Creator? If God Created all things and the Bible tells us Jesus, The Word created the World, then you have a problem explaining that.

Finally, John 20:28 is only one verse and passage in so many other posters have posited here to include the original poster. So like the prederists et. al. you like to argue points others present without presenting your own polemic.
59 posted on Tue 24 Dec 2013 12:06:11 PM PST by redleghunter
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All claims that the Gospel writer John wants us to believe Jesus is God are countered
***No, they are not, heretic.


2,222 posted on 12/24/2013 12:54:26 PM PST by Kevmo ("A person's a person, no matter how small" ~Horton Hears a Who)
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To: Kevmo; spirited irish; betty boop; tacticalogic; YHAOS
Kevmo: "When Thomas said “My Lord and my God” it was not ‘my Lord and one of the gods; or a god.” "

FRiend, we've been over this already, and now you're asking me to repeat what I already posted.
Then doubtless you'll complain about me saying the same thing twice! {sigh}

In John 10:34 Jesus himself specifically refers to Psalms 82:6 which calls some human beings "gods".
He is trying to say that as Son of God, he also is such a "god".
Psalms 45:6 is another example of a highly respected human being addressed as "O God".
This is what Jesus (Son of God) expected to be called too, and in John 20:28, it's what Thomas does call him.

There's more to be said on this, but let me jump to the conclusion, which you've already rejected, but I'll repeat John 20:30-31:

These are John's final words on this subject, and I take him at those words: Messiah, Son of God -- that's it.

If you wish to believe more, I say fine.
But I don't think we have to.

2,255 posted on 12/24/2013 2:21:01 PM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective....)
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