They will define it by whatever godless sodomy they wish. My question is, has there ever been in the short history of gay marriage—and it’s a very short history since gay marriage evolved out of the leftist sixties cultural morass—a single case of a gay couple who waited until after marriage to “consummate” their marriage by any definition they may advance? I doubt if one instance has ever occurred.
Now consummation could include a “wet willie” per the author...and that’s a good point since there is no end to the quest of libs for acceptance of homo deviancy. There is enough sin in the world without approving of more.