In the entire past of church and political history, a definition of a valid marriage would include “consummation.” Of course, that meant - normal heterosexual sex.
Now that we supposedly have “gay marriage” - how does one define “consummation” with a gay couple?
I’ve brought up this very point about consummation on here before. Same-sex marriage proponents will also have to redefine that from the dictionary definition, I guess, “The action of making a marriage or relationship complete by having sexual intercourse.”
I’ve also brought up how no one’s even talking about the impact this will have on raising children and on basic school functions. Every child will have to be taught they can either marry a “boy” or a “girl” when they grow up. As we saw recently in New England, “father/daughter” functions were banned by law as being sexist. Absolutely anything in schools that either teaches about traditional marriage or encourages male/female relationships at a dance or whatever will also soon be banned if same-sex marriage is instituted. It would necessarily create a fundamental and massive reordering of society and culture, with consequences every bit as far-reaching as any of Obama’s economic and health care proposals.
They will define it by whatever godless sodomy they wish. My question is, has there ever been in the short history of gay marriage—and it’s a very short history since gay marriage evolved out of the leftist sixties cultural morass—a single case of a gay couple who waited until after marriage to “consummate” their marriage by any definition they may advance? I doubt if one instance has ever occurred.