I'm no historical scholar by any means but IMHO “original intent” should be the only way to interpret the Consitution...PERIOD!....Amendments the only way to change things.....
It amazes me that many highly educated scholars “feel” that changing times demand different interpretations......Maybe I'm missing something..
Is there any doubt the Supreme Court at some point these past ninety years would have decided on their own that women had such a right?