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To: org.whodat; Abathar

P.S. If it turns out that the entity who currently has legal standing to foreclose on the mortgage (say, a local bank) has already “sold” the mortgage to someone else (i.e., Bank of America or an institution that deals in collateralized debt instruments) and has been paid for that transaction, then that entity has no incentive to initiate foreclosure proceedings against the delinquent borrower and therefore won’t even bother doing so.


37 posted on 04/18/2011 7:37:40 AM PDT by Alberta's Child ("If you touch my junk, I'm gonna have you arrested.")
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To: Alberta's Child
Wrong, contractual arrangement between the two makes the seller guarantee performance. Are he can be made to prefect the deal by a court.
39 posted on 04/18/2011 7:53:22 AM PDT by org.whodat
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