Why wasn’t what he told her in the Canon?
The canon of Scripture is something that is "determined" by God, Himself, since it's His Word. Thus, the answer to that is simply ... it was not something that God wanted in His Word.
"People" themselves don't "make a writing" to be the "canon of Scripture" -- they can only "recognize" what God has already "determined Himself" -- to be scripture.
All the canon of Scripture that we have was immediately recognized to be Scripture, by those who received it, at the time it was written and given to the people (i.e., the "people of God"). While there may have been "some" who questioned a book here or there, in terms of their own "recognition" of whether it was Scripture, by and large, all the books of the Bible were immediately received and recognized as Scripture.
Others (the ones we've come to know as rejected, and we can see why when we read them) -- have never come to be recognized as Scripture, at a later time, after having been rejected by the majority of those to whom it was directed to.
Take a look at ...
AND... you'll note that we have this in reference to Scripture ... and it shows the "purpose" of God's Word/Scriptures. It's for (1) doctrine, (2) reproof, (3) correction, (4) instruction in righteousness -- so "that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work."
2 Timothy Chapter 3 16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
AND..., also, Scripture is all about Jesus, the Messiah of Israel and the salvation that He has provided for the world.
If something is not in Scripture, it's because God has not chosen it to be in Scripture and thus -- it was not for (1) doctrine, it was not for (2) reproof, and it was not for (3) correction and it was not for (4) instruction in righteousness -- and it did not make any contribution to this ... "that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work."
Remember, Scripture is not either complete knowledge about all aspects of a subject, or exhaustive knowledge about it -- it is "sufficient knowledge" for the purpose that God intends to accomplish in His Word.
And what "is said" in His Word (on any subject), even though it does not "exhaust the subject" it is inerrant, infallible and authoritative in all that it says, speaks about, speaks on, addresses, comments about, or teaches or instructs or educates about.
Another way to put it -- is -- nothing else is needed for the purposes that God intends, than ... the Word of God, itself (plus, of course, God's own actions in the Holy Spirit, working personally in people's lives, and the new creation that God makes every one to be who has chosen His Son as their personal savior).
So are you saying what Jesus said to Mary was determined un-important by the Creator? or do you think what Jesus said to Mary, would not be understood by most people and rejected because it was to Mystical for most people to understand through-out the ages?
Or can we even know why it was rejected?
I only ask because those writings were found with the Dead Sea Scrolls when many hidden things seem to be -un-covered
and when Prophecy became apparent for our Generation with Israel once becoming a nation again...
Thanks for your replies ST! :)