Ezekiel used the word that widely meant the modern territory of “Russia” and “Turkey” in those days? That should be a simple matter of translation. Like calling France “Gaul” or some such,,, that basically your opinion??Oh no, it's not my opinion. I get my information from people who spend their lives studying eschatology:
Ezekiel 38 & 39 (Part 2)
Ezekiel 38 & 39 (Part 3)
Ezekiel 38 & 39 (Part 4)
Ezekiel 38 & 39 (Part 5)
Now I'd be happy to hear exactly why these scholars are incorrect.