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To: GiovannaNicoletta

“Ezekiel 38 and 39 detail a Russian-Muslim coalition”

Interesting,,, but of course, they don’t actually use those phrases “Russian” and “Muslim” though, do they? Thats what someone, somewhere modern, ,, says it meant, right? Not agreeing with this scholar is perfectly legit. Isn’t it funny, how a prophesy intended for us, isn’t written in a way that anyone can easily interpret what it meant? Ever wonder why they wouldnt just use terms we would all know?


35 posted on 06/01/2010 2:21:50 PM PDT by DesertRhino (I was standing with a rifle, waiting for soviet paratroopers, but communists just ran for office)
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To: DesertRhino
Ezekiel used the names of the nations as they existed in his time.

That doesn't then mean that the fact that those same nations, which now have names such as Russia, Turkey, Iran, Ethiopia, etc., that were called something different when God gave Ezekiel the prophecy mean that the prophecy is negated and is rendered meaningless.

The fact that limited, finite man cannot grasp something that God has said, or cannot, in his extremely limited understanding, see prophecy being fulfilled when it is happening right in front of his face, mean that the prophecy is not happening and will not come to pass just as God said it will.

Just like the hundreds of Biblical prophecies that have been fulfilled down through the years have happened just like God said that would, the Exekiel prophecy will also come to pass.

And it will happen in our generation.

38 posted on 06/01/2010 2:29:39 PM PDT by GiovannaNicoletta
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