Replies

And you obviously know that because you are a much better Hebrew and Greek Scholar than the team of scholars who translated the KJV, right?

Have you ever used an interlinear? or even a concordance? It is amazing what simple tools like Berry's or Young's and Strong's can show you.

Why did it take until the 4th Century to formalize Jesus as God? And why does that doctrine cause so many major contridictions?

When y'all can explain how those many clear verses and concepts that show differences between God and Jesus work then I'll return the favor on the other verses, but until then it just shows that you have failed to look at your religious template with an honest and critical eye.

Jesus taught STRONGLY about truth versus tradition...maybe it is time for y'all to look at some of your traditions in light of the truth of God's word instead of what centuries of traditions have taught?

Have you ever used an interlinear? or even a concordance? It is amazing what simple tools like Berry's or Young's and Strong's can show you.

I'll accept that response as a "no".

Why did it take until the 4th Century to formalize Jesus as God?

Because the clear teachings of the first century were being perverted by heretics who thought they knew more than the Apostles and their immediate disciples. Error was creeping into the Church and the various churches got together to make a formal statement as to what the Church Fathers and the Apostles had been teaching for 400 years.

If I were to show you the clear verses in the Bible that confirm that Jesus Christ is God Almighty, would you change your view? Are you open to being taught on this subject, or is your current view the one you plan on taking to the grave?

So what Church do you attend or what church are do you hold membership? Or are you just a "Lone Christian" making up your theology as you go?

BTW I am pining our resident Greek and Hebrew Scholars to this thread in case there is a question regarding the original intent of the scriptures.

And you obviously know that because you are a much better Hebrew and Greek Scholar than the team of scholars who translated the KJV, right?

I'm by no means a Greek or Hebrew or Aramaic scholar. I do have several reference materials for those languages, however.

The interlinear, for instance shows several discrepancies between the Stephen's text with it's translation and the KJV. Also having studied in Germany with Christians that do not use the KJV but the German translation of the same texts, it amuses them of the use of holy ghost instead of holy spirit. They just shake their heads at it due to the INCONSISTENT translation in the KJV.

Additionally, the KJV has punctuation which in many cases is totally subjective and even simply incorrect at times. Man's private interpretation since the ancient texts did not include punctuation. Or capitals.