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I’m sorry.... I seem to have missed your answer.

Well certainly you have missed an answer you wanted.

What, again, was your source for the portrayal of the Jews as “Christ Killers” if not the Gospels?

Your question is loaded with a false counter-distinction. I did answer it in post 50, but I unloaded it first. Please let me try to clarify further:

The primary source of information about the Crucification comes from the New Testament (not just the gospels, its mentioned elsewhere). According to this account Jesus, Jesus's friends, and those that wished him crucified were pretty much all Jews. Makes sense, because it happened in Jerusalem around the passover. However, the term "Christ Killers" in the context of a justification for the Holocaust certainly did not come from the New Testament. Rather, an atitude very alien to that view is taught.

The attitude you associated with this information came from the normal fallible nature of those that chose to adopt that attitude.

Thus, you seem to be trying to assign moral culpability to information rather than human intent. Do you feel other kinds of information that might make one group of people angry if they found out should be suppressed? Certainly any kind of negative report might serve as part of a chain of causes that result in some evil retaliation.

"The primary source of information about the Crucification comes from the New Testament (not just the gospels, its mentioned elsewhere). According to this account Jesus, Jesus's friends, and those that wished him crucified were pretty much all Jews. Makes sense, because it happened in Jerusalem around the passover. However, the term "Christ Killers" in the context of a justification for the Holocaust certainly did not come from the New Testament. Rather, an atitude very alien to that view is taught."

First, a comment. This is not meant to be snarky but I notice it is something you have done repeatedly and I'm just trying to be helpful. There is no such word as "crucification." The word is "crucifixion."

Second, I note that you object to the language, but not to the actual portrayal as found in the New testament. As a matter of fact it appears that you fully concede here that the source of your portrayal is the New Testament.

It is simple historical fact, testified to in the writings of the Church fathers themselves, that this portrayal is both the proximate and ultimate cause of their own anti-Semitism, as well as 2000 years of general anti-Semitism in Christian Europe. There is no need to even explore the inconsistency of that portrayal with the historical facts of Roman history and law. The dots have been neatly and solidly connected.

Matthew 7:16