Just FYI - on another thread a FReeper is stating that the press is now minimizing the threat that the Mr. Solis posed to Obama. They are saying he died of a “heart attack”, and that complications due to pre-existing medical conditions probably contributed (he was a diabetic).
I brought this up on that other thread, but without the input of a coroner or doctor (or even a genealogist familiar with death certificates) I’m at a loss. I’m hoping that some on this thread may be able to give a little more insight...
If this man contracted this flu, and was unable to fight it off due to his pre-existing medical conditions (diabetes, possibly heart disease), and the actual, FINAL cause of death was an “acute myocardial infarction” (SP?) would the “cause of death” also include the diabetic related syndrome he apparently suffered, as WELL as his presenting symptoms of flu. Or would the official cause of death be simply “heart attack”.
I think everyone can see where I’m going with this. (At the risk of sounding paranoid, when in actuality I’m just trying to gain more information so that I DON’T get paranoid! LOL) Would it not be pretty easy for our government and healthcare “overseers” (like WHO & the CDC) to UNDER-report the amount of people dying from this flu by incorrectly classifying these deaths by listing the final “event” (respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, acute dehydration, etc...), and not reporting the presence of the flu symptoms? OR, would this line of thinking be disrespectful of the good people at the CDC and WHO who truly do dedicate their lives towards trying to PREVENT things like this?