The conclusion is a self-refuting non-sequiter.
Logically, it would be impossible to tell the difference between a translation error and an accurate translation without assuming in the first place that the original had a literal meaning, i.e., a meaning that was intended, and could be interpreted in it's proper sense. Therefore, your conclusion violates the terms of the premise, and is incoherent.
In the second place, it simply does not follow that because some translations are in error that all translations are necessarily in error.
Cordially,
Agreed. There are translation errors in the Bible and thus it cannot be taken literally.