Almost 100% correlation between HIV antibodies (meaning exposure of that individual to HIV) and AIDS and you say that isn’t a strong correlation?
Immune deficiency was almost unheard of until HIV was found in humans. Now almost all people with immune deficiencies are found to have HIV exposure. Strong correlation.
Simian Immune virus is closely related to H.I.V. and it causes AIDS in monkeys. Strong correlation.
Just how does one get antibodies to HIV again? Oh yes. Exposure to HIV. And what do virtually all AIDS patients have? Oh yes, evidence of HIV exposure.
Just what particular brand of nuttiness are you promoting by denying the clear and obvious connection?
Stunningly ignorant and illogical.
The epidemiology of HIV indicates that it has been endemic in humans for centuries. It is NOTHING like the epidemiology of AIDS. HIV is found in thousands of humans with NO symptoms of AIDS Symptoms of AIDS are are found in thousands of humans with NO HIV. None of these individuals are diagnosed with AIDS. Why? Because AIDS is not a disease, it is a syndrome defined as the presence of one or more of several marker diseases in an individual who tests positive for HIV antibodies.
With a definition like this, it's not surprising that you have a "strong correlation of HIV with AIDS. It's DEFINED that way.
But, leave an HIV positive, non-IV drug user, non-buggerer, non-malnourished, otherwise normal person alone, and there is NO greater chance of developing an AIDS associated disease than anyone else in the general population. Give them anti-HIV drug cocktails, and you'll eventually kill 'em dead.