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To: John Leland 1789
Let's recap -- post 58 I said There was no "Roman" Catholic term until the Protesters used that to distinguish themselves from the Western Christian Church in the 1500s. Pre-Protestants, there was only 1 Church. and that is true -- the Church was defined as orthodoxy and it consisted of All Apostolic Churchs. Even the groups that split away like the Assyrian Church were Apostolic in Origin and in thought. Post the Protestants, there were many groups (not the first groups who maintained Apostolic thoughts, but the splinter groups and the sub-sub-sub-splinter groups) that had individual human interpretations and were not Apostolic in origin and hence were NOT The Church.

You then say that no, there were other Churches besides the orthodox and who taught things like Christ being just a prophet etc. -- those groupings like Islam, Arianism etc. existed/exist, yes, but they were NOT the Church.

Then, in post 227, you use slurs

Then, in post 235, you question the meaning of the term Apostolic -- well that means Churchs that are of Christ, founded by one of His Apostles. And yes, the organised Churches are the Churches of the Apostles of Our Lord


Then, you make the silly statement that Peter was never in Rome, and, when confronted with proof from various sources that he WAS in Rome, you say "well, it wasn't mentioned in the Bible, so it didn't happen" -- does the Bible mention that Jude Thaddeus would have gone to Iran? Does it mention that Thomas went to Southern india? Does it mention that the moon revolves around the earth and the earth revolves around the sun? No, but there are proofs that they did. The Bible speaks the truth, but it's not an encyclopedia listing every historical event.

After you see this proof, then you say, "oh no, that was revisionist and distorted".
251 posted on 02/21/2008 2:21:23 AM PST by Cronos ("Islam isn't in America to be equal to any other faith, but to become dominant" - Omar Ahmed, CAIR)
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To: Cronos
Why were the priests and bishops of the WCC (RCC) so intertested in burning piles of well-translated Bibles and desirous to do away with their translators and publishers and distributors in Europe, say, from 1300 to 1600 AD ? One example would be Brother Wycliffe.

The CHURCH of Jesus Christ is a spiritual Body made up of Jew and Gentile baptized by the Holy Spirit into Christ and made one in Him (1 Corinthians 12:12, 13; Colossians 2:11, 12; etc.) So THE CHURCH (Many of God’s children), who were never a part of the WCC (RCC) were involved in the copying of thousands of copies of the Scriptures, which became the Majority Text; the Textus Receptus. Everything being used by the RCC today is from an Alexandrian type text. Many Orthodox Catholics (Greek Orth.; etc.) still use a Majority Text derivative Greek Bible. But not the RCC.

There are some fine folks at Ex-Orthodox for Christ who can explain the history of textual evidence to you.

exorthodoxforchrist.com

256 posted on 02/21/2008 7:20:20 AM PST by John Leland 1789
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