"In this context, "the people" is immediately qualified to refer to that subset of the people who are qualified to vote for the state legislators."Huh? English, por favor.
Only "the people" voted. In 1792, the only ones who voted were adult, white, male citizens. They were "the people".
I have no idea what you're talking about.
We keep circling around this. You keep referring to that clause in Article I Section 2 as implying that the only "people" who had human rights under the Bill of Rights were that subset of the people who qualified as Electors under Article I Section 2
The point that the rest of us are making is that the writers of the Constitution intended for the Bill of Rights to apply to "the people" as the term was generally understood to mean.