Are you saying that the 2d is the only amendment that applies to government powers and that the people can never infringe on the "right" of the government to arm itself.
That's pretty bizare.
Why did they put it in there at all?
Were they saying that we are going to have a tyranny and the people who just threw off a tyranny have no right to resist the new one?
Are you saying that the people named in the amendment are the people in the government only?
You make absolutely no sense at all.
Originally, as written by the Founding Fathers, the Bill of Rights only applied to the federal government. By that I mean the only the federal government was forbidden from infringing on those rights. The states were free to infringe (and many did) as long as it wasn't against their own state constitution.
After the 14th amendment was ratified, activist courts used it to "incorporate" some (not all) of the BOR and make them applicable to the states, also. But, the 2nd and 3rd Amendments, the grand jury indictment clause of the 5th Amendment, and the 7th Amendment are not yet incorporated.