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To: Albion Wilde

Actually it IS Christian. Paul instructs the church in Timothy to select its' leaders from the members of it's congregation that have only one wife.....which means that there were accepted members who had more. Not to mention many of the old testament figures had multiple wives and absolutely NOTHING in the New Testement changes that allowance.


8 posted on 12/13/2006 10:57:25 AM PST by Dreagon
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To: Dreagon
LOL!

Back to logic class for you.

BTW, the Greece of Paul's day was a monogamous culture.

Polygamy was not a custom of neither the Greeks who lived in Paul's Greece nor the Romans who ruled Paul's Greece.

10 posted on 12/13/2006 11:10:00 AM PST by wideawake ("The nation which forgets its defenders will itself be forgotten." - Calvin Coolidge)
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To: Dreagon
Slight correction to your statement. Read the passage by doing your own translation of the original Greek. You will find that the word translated to 'one' can also be translated as

"a" - singular indefinite
"a certain" - singular specific
"at least" - as in minimal requirement

The 'one' - singular definite is an ENGLISH emphasis.

And when you think of it in context, it makes sense to say "... husband of a wife", as you would want to minimize the temptation of the leaders as they minister to the widows and wives in the church.
14 posted on 12/13/2006 11:48:18 AM PST by taxcontrol
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To: Dreagon
Actually it IS Christian. Paul instructs the church in Timothy to select its' leaders from the members of it's congregation that have only one wife.....which means that there were accepted members who had more.

Because people who attempt to follow Christ do a thing, does not make it Christ's or Father God's desired behavior. Christianity assumes that "all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God." (Romans 3:23)

Also see posts 26 and 27.

28 posted on 12/13/2006 1:33:05 PM PST by Albion Wilde (...where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom. -2 Cor 3:17)
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