[Stone Mountain]

IMHO, I think that it's a combination of learned behavior and a chemical imbalance.

Sounds reasonable. Isn't is possible, however, that the chemical imbalance can have genetic causes?

[DBeers]

Isn't is possible, however, that the chemical imbalance can have genetic causes?

Such is termed a hypothesis -in the case of this subject article generally and in the case of a genetic cause specifically for the homosexual disorder - an unproven hypotheis...

[wbill]

Isn't is possible, however, that the chemical imbalance can have genetic causes?

Possible, but to me at least, not logical. Homosexuals, by definition, cannot reproduce, ergo a genetic predisposition cannot be passed along. Logically, the only way that it could be genetic is if it was an anomaly - the example that I used previously was 'Fragile-X'. Genetic anomalies are *very* rare in comparison to the incidence of homosexuality.

Unfortunately, my knowledge of both genetics and the endocrine system stops at High School anatomy.

Had an argument with a co-worker on this once...they thought that homosexuality was genetic and that societal pressures would influence gays to 'act straight'. Perhaps in today's society - but 30,000 years ago, did the same pressures exist? Possible, but I really don't think that it's likely.

Or, is homosexuality a relatively new (within the past 250 or so human generations) phenomenon?

Like I said before, the entire issue has become so politicized, that I doubt the answer will definitively be found, at least in my lifetime.