If the Taylor Law fines workers and subjects them to jail time for exercising their right not to work, it is unconstitutional. The MTA's remedy is not to "force" workers to work through fines and jail, but to fire them if they don't work.
The Taylor Law has been on the books for decades and its constitutionality has never been successfully challenged. What is your source or basis for arguing that it is?
What prevents an employer from saying to employees: "I'm willing to offer you these wages and benefits in return for your agreement not to strike"?
Are laws prohibiting members of the armed forces from striking unconstitutional too?