Is any argument/proof purely empirical?
Try arguing with your wife :-)
In fact, she doesn't even have to be present to win:
If a man speaks in a forest, and there's no woman to hear him, is he still wrong?
Off the top of my head, no. I think there is always "implicitly" at least a logical frame work, even if it is as simple as A != non-A. But the framework, or the working assumptions, may happen to be tacitly ignored, or completely forgotten about, in some situations. As in the above joke.
Cheers!