[berkeleybeej]

Now, I don't understand how the "prior acts" clause can be constitutional given that the alleged prior acts did not result in any charges. Almost sounds like hearsay. It is part of CA law, but, not permissable in other states.

Actually the "prior acts" conforms to the Federal version of "prior bad acts". Additionally, the CA version has already been before the State Supreme Court and its validity upheld.

[katieanna]

"Actually the "prior acts" conforms to the Federal version of "prior bad acts". Additionally, the CA version has already been before the State Supreme Court and its validity upheld."


What/where is the federal statute of prior bad acts? Why are prior bad acts not permissable in the other 49 states?