If Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit without sin, if a sinful world could not corrupt Jesus, what differences does a sinful womb make?
By posts 268,312,354,and 539... You believe that Mary's Sinlessness has to do with the RCC's interpretation of "full of Grace". Do you really believe that Scripture can be superceeded by the RCC's interpretation? Wow!
The term "Hail Mary, full of grace" is not even scriptural.
Luke 1:28
I hope we can agree that Hail is a term of greeting.
The word "grace" only appears in the Amplified Bible. And the footnote says that not all manuscripts contain this. If this is such an important tenant of salvation, why would the Holy Spirit allow some manuscripts to drop it. If this was such an important tenant of the early church, then why would those who copied it drop it on purpose or by accident.
It reminds me that the keys (and the rock) are only mentioned in Matthew, but not in Mark or Luke (when telling the same story.) I would assume that Jesus handing over leadership of the earthly Church to Peter would be the most important part of the story. But it is not. The part of the story that is important is that Jesus is the Christ, which appears in all versions of the story, in Matthew, Mark and Luke.
As far as "full of grace", if you read Greek, you will see that the term "kecharitomene", is the passive femine perfect participle of "charito" (which means to give or endow with grace). And thus the term is quite rightly translated as "endowed with grace" or "full of grace".
-A8