[adiaireton8]

Your question, "If Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit without sin, if a sinful world could not corrupt Jesus, what differences does a sinful womb make?", is a good question. There is a difference between that which is intrinsic, and that which is extrinsic. If a sinful man spits on Christ, that does not make Christ sinful. But it was necessary for Christ to be born of a virgin (not by natural generation), in order not to receive original sin. Why? Because the flesh out of which we are made is intrinsic to our being, whereas the effects of a sinful world upon my body or soul are extrinsic to us.

As far as "full of grace", if you read Greek, you will see that the term "kecharitomene", is the passive femine perfect participle of "charito" (which means to give or endow with grace). And thus the term is quite rightly translated as "endowed with grace" or "full of grace".

-A8

[Tao Yin]

Your statement "Because the flesh out of which we are made is intrinsic" begs the question "Did Jesus share flesh with Mary, or was Mary a vessel to carry the child from the Holy Spirit?"

Now I'm just getting silly, but "How did Mary become pregnant?" Did the Holy Spirit create a whole viable life within Mary or did the Holy Spirit fertilize one of her eggs.

The prophesy in Isaiah 7:14 states that a virgin will become pregnant and have a son. Either scenerio fills the prophesy. Why put additional restrictions on God?

I don't think we can know. And because we can not know, how can not say that Jesus shared flesh with Mary. Because if the Holy Spirit created a whole viable life, then Mary was extrinsic, just like the sinful world.