Posted on 04/07/2005 8:55:52 AM PDT by BigSkyFreeper
*** One can not be sinful and at the same time be "full of grace."***
You know, Mary isn't the only one called "full of grace" (Charitoo) in the NT...
"Eph 1:6 To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted (made us "full of grace" - Charitoo) in the beloved."
That doesn't make mean that Christians are sinless too does it?
According to Paul, Christian's are made "full of grace" just like Mary
I can't imagine what I'd be called if I were a "young earther"! ;->
Yes.
That doesn't make mean that Christians are sinless too does it?
Of course. What do you think baptism is for? It removes Original sin and places us in the same sinless state that Mary was conceived in, and that Adam and Eve were born in.
Unfortunately, it doesn't necessarily keep us from commiting further actual sin in our lives.
According to Paul, Christian's are made "full of grace" just like Mary
Yes, they are. At baptism. But most of us are either spiritually weaker or not as amply blessed as Mary and we soon return to sin. Thankfully, we have sacramental ways of returning to this sinless state.
SD
I know what "incorruptible" means. They are saints whose bodies, thought dead, have not decomposed. Their bodies, then, serve as visible miracles and reminders that God can resurrect the body (or keep it from decaying in the first place).
There is nothing creepy about witnessing a miracle.
SD
It is a washing away of original and personal sin.
So if Mary's extra something was not this being "full of grace" as we have seen, then what was it?
Her being called "full of grace" testifys to her being sinless from her conception until the Annunciation. There was no baptism and there were no other sacraments. Any other human alive at the time would have original sin for sure and personal sin on their souls.
Besides being born without original sin, Mary also was given a special grace of perseverance, to allow her to live her entier life without sin.
Some special strength on her part? She was fully human right?
Yes, she was fully human. Any "special strength" she had was because God gifted her with it. But isn't that true of all of us?
SD
This is getting tiresome. I'm using a definition from Webster's New World dictionary, and if your dictionary only shows the one definition you've stated, you need to get a "thicker," more complete dictionary.
Secondly, I've already had this conversation with Catholics. I was raised around Catholics (predominantly Filipino and Mexican-American) and I attended mass as a child with them.
I think what you keep repeating is the Catechism of the Church, but unfortunately, it's not necessarily the belief system of all Catholics that I have known.
This is getting tiresome. I'm using a definition from Webster's New World dictionary, and if your dictionary only shows the one definition you've stated, you need to get a "thicker," more complete dictionary.
Secondly, I've already had this conversation with Catholics. I was raised around Catholics (predominantly Filipino and Mexican-American) and I attended mass as a child with them.
I think what you keep repeating is the Catechism of the Church, but unfortunately, it's not necessarily the belief system of all Catholics that I have known.
First, Mary knew Jesus to be God, she knew He was subject to her because He willing made Himself so by being her son. She became aware of a temporal need on the part of guests and from a human standpoint merely did what any mother might do, enjoin her son to help out.
Because the subject is a miracle and indeed the first recorded miracle of Christ, the spiritual dimension is also to be considered.
Recall that many of Christ's miracle were worked because of the faith of the requester: the curing of the centurion's son, the raising of Lazarus.
The faith is infused by God the Father, the request is prompted by the grace of the Holy Spirit, and Christ responds because it was God the Father's will that brought all the events to their proper time and place in Christ.
So, Mary's faith in God and Christ is what is on display here, as well as Christ's willingness to follow her pleading. As for the right time, indeed if he performed the miracle, it was the right time. God was speaking to His Son through His mother. Is that any less miraculous than Christ coming to the world through that same mother?
Have you ever felt that a particular pray on your lips was prompted by the Holy Spirit? And have you experienced that upon uttering it the prayer was immediately answered. Such a prayer is the most efficacious. It is a prayer put on a human's lips by God Himself to manifest His glory and power.
We believe that Mary's plea was such a prayer.
I think you're getting off topic here. The point is, regardless of what we think of Baptism, that when Christians are regenerated they are at that time sinless. The Catholics have an explanation for how Mary was able to be in this state prior to Christ. Have you?
Is there any Scriptural support for these beliefs?
In so many words, no. Then again, the teachings of the Trinity are not in "so many words" either. You do believe in the Trinity, don't you?
I don't believe the Bible anywhere denies our ability to make reasoned conclusions from the material it reveals.
The fact of the matter is that the Scriptures single out only ONE person as being sinless. This had to be made explicitly clear, because if Jesus was not sinless then his sacrifice would be ineffective.
Jesus had to be blameless, yes. But the real point is that Jesus had to be God, the Infinite One. An infant is sinless, but crucifying an infant is not going to redeem the world.
In the narrative of the NT, Mary is seen as being on the same level as the other faithful followers of Jesus.
That's one way to read it. the way that wants to pull Mary down and make it seem as if Jesus has no regard for His mother.
The other way is that Jesus is telling us if we do the will of the Father we will be considered just like His mother.
Not if the supposed "special strength" is in conflict with the clear witness of the Bible, i.e. "All have sinned..."
Do you really believe "all have sinned" allows for noe exceptions? How do you define sin? Can infants and toddlers sin? What about the mentally handicapped?
SD
How about the scriptures that tell us to "make our requests known unto God" and "come boldly before the throne of Grace""
How about the scriptures that tell us to "make our requests known unto God" and "come boldly before the throne of Grace"
That's a good idea too.
Well, even with intercessories, the requests still are made known to God. And one could argue that summoning the forces of all the saints in Heaven to make our petitions known is pretty bold.
SD
For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed. (KVJ, other translations use the same lowly state or something close).
My Strong’s Concordance says "lowly state" in the Greek meant spiritual abasement, leading one to perceive and lament his (moral) littleness and guilt.
But then the scripture goes on to the ...called me blessed..section. Perhaps that means from that point on?
It's entirely possible I'm being myopic here by focusing too tightly but take verse 47:
And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
If Mary is in a state of sinlessness and grace does she need a Savior?
I feel uncomfortable with what I might be taking away from the that verse and I'm not nearly completed in my study but I thought I'd pass it by you.
Thanks again for your time and thoughts. Also I was remiss in not thanking you for your kind words in a previous post, so allow me to do so now.
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