To: RadioAstronomer
Okay. I'm a glutton for punishment tonight.
Let's go back to your question In #263 on Matthew, Mark, Luke and John. I'm going to explain your question on Matthew and John. I will leave the other questions up to you since you are making the same error. If I explain the error in Matthew and John, maybe you'll be able to correct your own error in Mark and Luke. Too often it is pointless to "preach" at people. It's so easy to see what is going on. You'll be embarrassed ... .
Okay ... Matthew 28:5 refers to the "angel" at the tomb after Jesus' resurrection and yet John says there were "two angels" there in John 20:12. I believe this is your question.
Matt. 28:5
[5] And the angel answered and said unto the women, Fear not ye: for I know that ye seek Jesus, which was crucified.
John 20:12
[12] And seeth two angels in white sitting, the one at the head, and the other at the feet, where the body of Jesus had lain.
Matthew does NOT say there was only ONE angel.
John says there were TWO and whenever there are TWO there is always ONE - it never fails (logic). The critic, YOU, have voluntarily added ONLY to make it contradictory. "ONLY" is not present in the account by Matthew. The problem is YOU adding "ONLY" to the account of Matthew.
Matthew does focus on the one who SPOKE and "said to the women, "Do not be afraid ..." Matt. 28:5 whereas John referred to how MANY angels they SAW "and she saw two angels" in John 20:12.
Do you see what you are doing? You are reading things in that are NOT there and failing to use good old fashioned logic. No Greek is needed here or Hebrew.
374 posted on
01/19/2005 9:19:56 PM PST by
nmh
(Intelligent people recognize Intelligent Design (God).)
To: nmh
That argument is so pathetic I'm astounded that you bother to put it up.
If Matthew were referring to more than one angel he wouldn't say "the angel", he'd say "one of the angels".
When you say "the x" in an unspecified context the meaning is always quite clear, there is 1 x present.
Don't blame us for poor english translations if you are going to claim that the original Hebrew says something different.
No wonder we can't just read the text. We have to sit down with an expert who can explain to us why it isn't contradictory, really.
384 posted on
01/20/2005 1:00:57 AM PST by
Thatcherite
(Conservative and Biblical Literalist are not synonymous)
To: nmh
Do you see what you are doing? You are reading things in that are NOT there and failing to use good old fashioned logic. No Greek is needed here or Hebrew.Fair enough! :-)
I do not pretend, nor will I pretend to be a biblical scholar. From here out I will stick to my science. Sorry if I offended.
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