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To: All

Can someone answer this?

There have been two machine counts and the Rep candidate won them both.

I think it has been statistically shown that a hand count of 3 million cards will be LESS accurate than a machine count.

Why can't the Reps make a legal case that the uncertainty would be less with a machine count and therefore that one of the two machine counts should trump the hand count?

Fargo44


90 posted on 12/02/2004 6:44:02 PM PST by Fargo44 (Sure! I'll vote Democratic when they pry my cold dead fingers off the GOP lever.)
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To: Fargo44

Because the law permits a hand count.


92 posted on 12/02/2004 6:45:13 PM PST by connectthedots
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