[Technogeeb]

The fist law which directed itself ro stricttly to same-sex did get get passed until the 70's.

That is irrelevant to your original false statement ("There was not a single law outlawing same-sex sodomy in this country 100 years ago", in post 204), since the earlier laws also clearly covered same-sex sodomy, and were primarily used to prosecute such acts. They were interpreted to cover heterosexual activity as well (Lewis v. State, Adams v. State, etc), but this was the minority of cases.

[Luis Gonzalez]

You can be as abtuse as you would like, but there were no laws addressing specifically and exclusively same-sex sodomy in America until the 1970's.

One of the most important things about understanding the world around you is not lying to yourself, so, if you don't want to see what's as plain as the nose on your face, that's fine, but don't go accusing me of making false statements.

If you don't want to understand the difference between outlawing sodomy for all, and outlawing it for some, then you just don;t want to understand.

By the way, according to your line of reason then, should the government of the State of Texas decide to outlaw Jewish religious ceremonies, there would be no discrimination against Jews because gentiles would be forbidden from participating in Jewish religious ceremonies as well.

Or better yet, we could criminalize performing or participating in Jewish religious ceremonies, and it would not mean that we are discriminating against Jews because gentiles could not participate in, or perform Jewish religious rites either.