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You can be as abtuse as you would like, but there were no laws addressing specifically and exclusively same-sex sodomy in America until the 1970's.

One of the most important things about understanding the world around you is not lying to yourself, so, if you don't want to see what's as plain as the nose on your face, that's fine, but don't go accusing me of making false statements.

If you don't want to understand the difference between outlawing sodomy for all, and outlawing it for some, then you just don;t want to understand.

By the way, according to your line of reason then, should the government of the State of Texas decide to outlaw Jewish religious ceremonies, there would be no discrimination against Jews because gentiles would be forbidden from participating in Jewish religious ceremonies as well.

Or better yet, we could criminalize performing or participating in Jewish religious ceremonies, and it would not mean that we are discriminating against Jews because gentiles could not participate in, or perform Jewish religious rites either.

You can be as abtuse as you would like, but there were no laws addressing specifically and exclusively same-sex sodomy in America until the 1970's

Irrelevant the the falseness of your original statement. Your original statement was "There was not a single law outlawing same-sex sodomy in this country 100 years ago", and that statement is a lie. Just admit it was a lie (or poor wording and not what you meant to say).

One of the most important things about understanding the world around you is not lying to yourself,

Then stop lying to yourself.

so, if you don't want to see what's as plain as the nose on your face, that's fine, but don't go accusing me of making false statements.

If you don't want to be accused of making false statements then either stop making false statements or correct the ones you have made.

By the way, according to your line of reason then, should the government of the State of Texas decide to outlaw Jewish religious ceremonies, there would be no discrimination against Jews because gentiles would be forbidden from participating in Jewish religious ceremonies as well

Now you are inventing strawman arguments. The only posts I have made on this subject is to point out that your post (#204) was a lie; nothing else.

Or better yet, we could criminalize performing or participating in Jewish religious ceremonies, and it would not mean that we are discriminating against Jews because gentiles could not participate in, or perform Jewish religious rites either.

Now you are simply setting up strawmen to attempt to distract others from the facts surrounding your lies. For the sake of honesty, why can you not simply admit that you misstated the truth in post #204. Or were you deliberately lying in the hopes that no one knew that Texas law 100 years ago punished homosexual sodomy?

"One of the most important things about understanding the world around you is not lying to yourself,"

physician, heal thyself!

Sodomy was a common law crime for centuries in England, and was practically universally outlawed in the United States in the 1800s and early 1900s.

"If you don't want to understand the difference between outlawing sodomy for all, and outlawing it for some, then you just don;t want to understand."

It was outlawed for all during this whole time.