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To: OrthodoxPresbyterian
Psssst... Hey, ftD. There's a question which you still have not answered. Here it is again:

Pssst...Hey, OP, if I answer it,will you promise not to ask it again. This was answered months ago. In fact, Rnmonof7 stated then (when she had not been deceived into Calvinism) that it proved the opposite of what you were attempting to say.

Matthew 11: 20 - 27 -- Then Jesus began to denounce the cities in which most of his miracles had been performed, because they did not repent. "Woe to you, Korazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable for Tyre and Sidon on the day of judgment than for you. And you, Capernaum, will you be lifted up to the skies? No, you will go down to the depths. If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Sodom, it would have remained to this day. But I tell you that it will be more bearable for Sodom on the day of judgment than for you." At that time Jesus said, "I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. Yes, Father, for this was your good pleasure." All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him. God foreknew Tyre and Sidon's free choice NOT TO REPENT in the case of His non-performance of such Miracles; AND God foreknew Tyre and Sidon's free choice TO REPENT in the case of His performance of such Miracles; AND God CHOSE not to perform these Miracles in Tyre and Sidon, a choice which had as its perfectly foreknown result the NON-Repentance of Tyre and Sidon, just as He foreknew. True, or False?

Yes, God chose not to perform those miracles, but that does not mean they did not have enough evidence to repent.(Rom.1:20) What Jesus is saying here is how much greater the punishment will be for those cities since they had more truth to overcome.

Now, since you believe in Unconditional election, how could Christ be saying that those cities would have repented? Wouldn't God have to regenerate them first? How could they repent if it was decreed that they not do so? Those verses are far more damaging to your view of Total Depravity then it is to mine that God wants all to repent. Under Total Depravity, it should not be possible for them to repent with more or less evidence since it is not dependent on them, but on the One who Predestinated them-right?

You know why you are not answering?

You see why I have to treat you guys the way I do, you are just pompus windbags. You are to used to talking among yourselves and patting each other on the back saying how smart you are. Oh, in case you haven't noticed, I did answer

Because you know that what Jesus is teaching here is that God specifically pre-determines the individual choices of Men.

Now, I am baffled? How do you get the clear words saying that if they had seen the miracles of Christ they would have repented to mean Predestination?

You guys are screwballs!

These are the specific words of Jesus. And I accuse you of understanding His words, and hating them. Prove me wrong. Answer the question.

I did. Ofcourse, no Calvinist thinks he ever has to answer a question. That verse is against predestination, not for it!

By the way, knock off the 'true or false' routine. I am not sitting in a witness box.

True or False, God is Love.

702 posted on 01/23/2002 12:56:35 PM PST by fortheDeclaration
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To: fortheDeclaration; RnMomof7; OrthodoxPresbyterian; CCWoody; the_doc
"True or False, God is Love."

I think that you intended to put a question mark after that, in order to make it a question: "True or False, God is Love?" (As you wrote it, it comes off as "whether God is true or God is false, He is still love". I hope this isn't your intent (see Romans 3:4))

The answer? True, God is Love. Yet, you have not answered the niggling question under the surface of this discussion: How can God be loving, and yet allow men to go to hell? Why is it that He is not actively engaged in making certain that all men equally hear the Gospel message, and are convinced of its veracity? Why does He not produce the same level of conviction in all men? From experience, I know that He is quite capable of breaking through the barriers that we place between Him and ourselves. Along with "Mom" I experienced the heart changing work of His Holy Spirit in wooing me to Himself. Why doesn't He do that in the hearts of all men? Why does He not do the same works in Tyre and Sidon? You, honestly, have not answered these questions.

706 posted on 01/23/2002 1:17:05 PM PST by Jerry_M
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To: fortheDeclaration, Jerry_M
Yes, God chose not to perform those miracles, but that does not mean they did not have enough evidence to repent.

Doesn't matter. God knew that they would Repent if He performed the miracles, and that they would Not Repent if He did not perform the miracles. Knowing, therefore, that He enjoyed total Power to determinate whether they would Repent or Not Repent, He decreed to Not Perform the miracles so that the Tyrians and Sidonians would Not Repent, and be Damned, which was His purpose for them.

Your admission grants me the entirety of the Debate. God has pre-determined all the individual choices of Men.

Now, since you believe in Unconditional election, how could Christ be saying that those cities would have repented?

Had God seen fit to Elect them to Salvation, He would have performed the miracles so that they would Repent.

But He decided instead that He was going to Reprobate them, and so He did Not Perform the miracles, so that they would Not Repent, and be Damned, which was God's purpose.

Wouldn't God have to regenerate them first?

Sure. And had God elected from before Time to bring them to Repentance, He would have performed the miracles as Means of Grace unto the Tyrians, just as Paul on the Road to Damascus, which He knew would pre-determine the Tyrians to decide to Repent.

But God had decreed instead from before Time that He was going to Damn the Tyrians, so He chose to Not Perform the miracles, which He foreknew would pre-determine the Tyrians to decide to Not Repent, and be Damned, which was God's purpose.

How could they repent if it was decreed that they not do so?

Had God decreed that they should Repent, He would have performed the miracles which He foreknew would determine their decisions unto Repentance.
But God had decreed that they should Not Repent, and so He did Not Perform the miracles, in order to pre-destine their decisions to Non-Repentance.

Those verses are far more damaging to your view of Total Depravity then it is to mine that God wants all to repent. Under Total Depravity, it should not be possible for them to repent with more or less evidence since it is not dependent on them, but on the One who Predestinated them-right?

No, under Total Depravity, the display of miracles can be a Means of Grace by which God regenerates the inner spirit (Paul on the road to Damascus proves this). It is up to God how His Power "works" upon a man.

But God did not decree from before Time that the Tyrians and Sidonians should be Saved, he decreed before Time that they should be Damned. So, in keeping with His Predestinating Decree, he did not perform the miracles which would have been a means of Penitent Grace to them, and so pre-determined that their choice would be to Not Repent, and be Damned, which was God's purpose.

Now, I am baffled? How do you get the clear words saying that if they had seen the miracles of Christ they would have repented to mean Predestination?

Because who controls miracles?

God.

If it served God's purpose for them to believe and be Saved, He foreknew with certainty that the performance of miracles would be a Means of Grace to bring about their Repentance. Jesus specifically said that, had they seen these miracles (which God alone decides whether He will perform, or not), that they would have Repented!!

But it did not serve God's purpose for the Tyrians to believe and be Saved. God's purpose was for them to be Damned. Knowing that His non-performance of miracles in these cities would most certainly result in their non-repentance, He decreed not to perform these miracles, in order to pre-determine that their choice would be to Not Repent, and be Damned, which was God's purpose.

God knew exactly how much Grace would be required to save Tyre. It was not beyond His power; it required no more a display of miraculous Grace than He did display in stiff-necked Chorazin!!

But God's purpose from before Time was not to save Tyre, but to Damn them. Knowing that His decision to perform, or not perform, certain miracles would pre-determine whether Tyre would Repent, or Not Repent, He decreed NOT to perform these miracles, SO THAT they would NOT Repent, and be Damned, which was His purpose for them.

'Nuff said.

708 posted on 01/23/2002 1:21:08 PM PST by OrthodoxPresbyterian
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To: fortheDeclaration; OrthodoxPresbyterian
Your #702 strikes me as a ridiculous exercise in obstinate desperation. I therefore stand by my #703.

As a Calvinist, I cannot boast over any of this. You are at God's mercy. Your free will, although free by the very definition of will, is not doing you much good in regard to receiving the Truth (and that, too, by the very definition of will).

You hate the Light and you will not come to it.

710 posted on 01/23/2002 1:24:55 PM PST by the_doc
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