[Sueann]

"Christ did not die for each and every man"

Hmmmm? "It is GOD's desire that NONE should perish".

How do you reconcile the two statements?

[CCWoody]

"Christ did not die for each and every man"

If you are going to maintain that Christ died for every single man, then you need to show evidence of "Universal Salvation" in the Bible. I can easily reconcile the Timothy verse you are referring to with the rest of scripture.

While you consider your post, please answer me this question: Before God spoke the very first word of creation, did He know all details of His creation from who would be saved and down even to the last detail of every single thought of all His created "dirt"?

[rdb3]

Did God desire for Adam to sin? Yet, he did.

[A.J.Armitage]

If the predestinarian position isn't true, I'd like to know what to make of Ephesians 1:4-5.

[DallasDeb]

#6: "Christ did not die for each and every man" Hmmmm? "It is GOD's desire that NONE should perish". How do you reconcile the two statements?

We've been down this road before, haven't we? I think people like rdb3 and CCWoody get "salvation" and the purpose of Christ's death/resurrection mixed up. The very first sentence of this article provides the reason for his death: "Christ died for the ungodly."—Romans 5:6. ALL of us are ungodly; therefore, Christ died for ALL of mankind.

However, we are saved by the faith that He died for our sins; that he is our Savior. That fact does not negate the purpose of His death. For salvation, we have to accept His gift and believe He is our Savior.

Sueann, watch how they will twist my words.