[RnMomof7]

So if God knew "Adam would fall" if tempted, why did God present Adam with the 'opportunity to sin'? If love does not require a decision/choice by the object of ones love, why not eliminate the possibility of rejection by not providing the opportunity to 'fall'? Couldn't God have merely eliminated the possibility of Adam's 'fall'? If so, why didn't He?

I could have sworn that was my question to you..:>)

He allowed Adam to do as He willed. Just as He lets you do as you will. The question is never one of will ,it is always one why man wills the way he does. God chose to allow Adam to do as he willed without intervention .

[connectthedots]

He allowed Adam to do as He willed. Just as He lets you do as you will. The question is never one of will ,it is always one why man wills the way he does. God chose to allow Adam to do as he willed without intervention.

Did you intend to capitalize the second 'He' in the first sentence? It does make a difference.

Apparently you would agree that Adam knew he was sinning when ate the forbidden fruit. If so, and it also appears that you agree that Adam could exercise 'free will' in making decisions, I am at a loss to understand why you maintain that pre-destination is Biblical, at least as it relates to the salvation of individuals? The only conclusion I can reach is that one, or both, of us misunderstands the Calvinist position on pre-destination.

In the end, it matters little since we have both accepted Jesus Christ into our lives as our Savior; so eternal life is assured for both of us. The rest is nothing more than an excuse for friendly debate.