"the many" occurs two times in the verse. In the first half, it refers to the multitude of "sinners." In the second half, it refers to the multitude of "sinners made righteous."
I understand how Hank is reading the verse; it makes sense in English. He is reading it as "...many people were made sinners, and many people were made righteous..." That's not how the Greek reads. "Many" doesn't modify an unwritten "people"; rather, "the many" represents the sinners/righteous (as I describe in the previous paragraph.)
Example:
By the hand of Sauron, the many rings were made. The many given to Men were used for evil.
Both occurences of "the many" do not refer to the same thing in this passage. (or, as Hank might put it, it is not a 'balanced construction') Ditto for Romans. It's not so obvious in English, but it is incredibly obvious in the Greek.
How is the 'Greek' any diffent then what it is saying in English? The issue is (as Hank was making the arguement) If the 1st 'many' must mean 'all' since we know from Rom.3:22 that all have sinned, the second 'many' must mean all also. Frankly, I see nothing in the Greek that changes that.
Even so,come Lord Jesus