How is the 'Greek' any diffent then what it is saying in English? The issue is (as Hank was making the arguement) If the 1st 'many' must mean 'all' since we know from Rom.3:22 that all have sinned, the second 'many' must mean all also. Frankly, I see nothing in the Greek that changes that.
Even so,come Lord Jesus
There is a Greek adjective similar to our English adjective "many". In Greek -- as in English -- when one says "many bears are brown" one can safely deduce that not "all" bears are brown.
However, there is another Greek phrase best translated as "the many". It is a noun and not an adjective. It is comparable to the english word "multitude." It is NOT a subset of "all".
It is difficult to convey this in English. Let me try again.
Many sinners in this world will die.
(The reader can safely assume I am not talking about ALL the sinners.)
The many sinners in this world will die.
(The reader can safely assume I am talking about ALL sinners and making the additional comment that there sure are a bunch of sinners in this world.)
Does that help?
In one, "many" is being used as an adjective and in the other "the many" is being used as a noun.
One more note...
If the 1st 'many' must mean 'all' since we know from Rom.3:22 that all have sinned, the second 'many' must mean all also.
In the first clause, Paul writes of "THE MANY" sinners. In the second clause, Paul writes of "THE MANY" righteous. The two occurences do not refer to the same thing. You are still thinking of "many" as an adjective modifying "people". That isn't correct. The Greek doesn't use an adjective -- it uses the noun "THE MANY."