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To: CCWoody
1 John 5:1 Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God...

The verb tense is very specific. Whoever believes [present tense] has been [past tense] born of God.

Try again. Read the verse you are quoting, please.

1,374 posted on 01/28/2002 6:05:04 PM PST by ShadowAce
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To: ShadowAce
Try again. Read the verse you are quoting, please.

One last try and then it is good night!

The tense of the verse you are reading is past tense if you are able to read it: Everyone who believes is born of God! However, I am referring mainly to the tense of the verb in the original language which the NT was written:
The perfect tense in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes an action which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, not needing to be repeated.
Therefore the verse does in fact read everyone who believes is [past completed] born of God.
It is obvious that we are really not on the same maturity level in our Biblical understanding. Good night.
1,386 posted on 01/28/2002 6:45:35 PM PST by CCWoody
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To: ShadowAce; xzins; Jerry_M; CCWoody
I think CCWoody's grammar is correct. Even if the English language translations render the verse as "is born of God," the past tense idea is obvious.

What you are looking at is a past participle ("born") serving as a predicate adjective. A present tense copulative ("is") links the subject with the adjective which modifies it. The net result is a present situation of having been previously born of God.

CCWoody's point, for what it's worth (!), is that even at the exact instant in which a sinner believes on the Lord Jesus Christ, the grammar text is saying that this person was already born of God--necessarily so.

When I get a chance, I'll find the Greek text and see what it says--unless someone beats me to it.

1,419 posted on 01/29/2002 9:30:32 AM PST by the_doc
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