Yes, but Jonh's Gospel was writen in Greek.
Yes, but dignan3 was seeking to make a case in John 6 that the Greek word used means "gnaw". He was trying to establish the literalness of the passage. I simply pointed out that here, he wished to have Jesus speaking Greek (if it were in Aramaic, translated into Greek, how do we know that the original connotation of the word was preserved in the translation?). But in Matthew 16:18, Catholics have argued that Jesus was speaking in Aramaic, thus "Kephas...Kephas" rather than "Petros...petra". As Iowegian pointed out, you can't have it both ways.