To: muir_redwoods
The Roman priets were allowed to marry for the first 1000 or so years...This is a myth as is the myth that being married would somehow bring closure to sexual abuse.
The truth is that the Church's obligation of celibacy goes back to the apostles in an unbroken line. And the motivation for celibacy was the closer following of Jesus Christ, who required his apostles to leave wife and family, to become soley "married" to Him and His church.
To: vox_freedom
"The truth is that the Church's obligation of celibacy goes back to the apostles in an unbroken line."Leaving unexplained the biblical reference to Peter's mother-in-law.
To: vox_freedom
This is a myth as is the myth...
Fourth Century
306-Council of Elvira, Spain, decree #43: a priest who sleeps with his wife the night before Mass will lose his job.
325-Council of Nicea: decreed that after ordination a priest could not marry. Proclaimed the Nicene Creed.
385-Pope Siricius left his wife in order to become pope. Decreed that priests may no longer sleep with their wives.
Sixth Century
567-2nd Council of Tours: any cleric found in bed with his wife would be excommunicated for a year and reduced to the lay state.
580-Pope Pelagius II: his policy was not to bother married priests as long as they did not hand over church property to wives or children.
To: vox_freedom
"The truth is that the Church's obligation of celibacy goes back to the apostles in an unbroken line."Hmmm. . .well we know that Peter was married, because scripture speaks of his mother in law. Are you saying that at some point, Peter stopped fulfilling his husbandly duties? That would be against scripture as well.
201 posted on
01/06/2005 10:24:26 AM PST by
MEGoody
(Ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.)
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