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***"the marks of the Lord Jesus"***

Your reasoning is circular Dave. You read your desired meaning into Paul's term and then argue from the term.

The phrase can refer as easily to the marks Jesus received in his scouraging as it can to the marks received in nailing Him to the cross.

Paul, in context, makes no statement that these marks were supernaturally manifest in his body. You assume they are.

Prove that these marks were supernatural and "non-random." Cite evidence that they were such.

Otherwise, you present pure speculation as having biblical support. Not wise.

I believe Thomas wanted to probe these very marks in order to prove to himself that the Lord has risen. They are, in this way in Scripture, distinctive signifying marks of Jesus.

But you are right that it is impossible to know exactly what is meant just from this passage. We require a tradition in order to understand. It could mean stigmata or not.