[Cvengr]

Whenever I find myself facing an apparant dilemma in Scripture of God's attributes, I've found I'm either focusing on the wrong lesson or have not taken all factors into consideration either sequentially or simultaneously.

In the problematic verses where many are tempted to adopt a truism that God uses sin to accomplish His Plan or implement His Will,..I instinctively wince. Sin is simply disobedience to His Will. So if he uses sin to advance His Plan, then he uses something which is against His Will in order to advance His Will. This would entail God as inconsistent. But we know He is immutable and Perfect Righteousness. Therein lies the apparant conflict.

I then look more closely at the predicaments and passages surrounding the cases where He is atributed as using sin to advance His Plan, and discover that there may be other lessons to be learned by those agents surrounding the sins being 'used'. e.g. the 1stKings22 passage regarding King Asa and the lying spirit.

One case of sin involves actions which are 'good for nothingness'. It might be the case, that if He is faced with a situation consequent of His creature's volition, that they have been so rebellious or sinful, that their souls are so scarred that they will not accept truth.

In these situations, in order to not violate the volition which He created as good, He needn't force the volition of His creature, but instead, might have the bounds eradicated by the creature's scarred state to where it doesn't matter what is communicated to the creature, a lie or truth, because the information is good for nothingness anyways.

The use of the lying spirit might be better phrased as allowing the lying spirit his will, thereby allowing the volition of both King Asa, his prophets, the lying spirit, and God's Prophet to be cast into play. The result still displays His Soveriegnty without marring His righteousness or His Holiness.

Whenever I observe sin associated with His Plan, I tend to believe His real justification is of more significance and the will associated with sin is immaterial to His decision.

[lockeliberty]

In these situations, in order to not violate the volition which He created as good, He needn't force the volition of His creature, but instead, might have the bounds eradicated by the creature's scarred state to where it doesn't matter what is communicated to the creature, a lie or truth, because the information is good for nothingness anyways.

Hey Boy... you're twisting yourself into knots trying to save God. He don't need your help.

[CCWoody]

In the problematic verses where many are tempted to adopt a truism that God uses sin to accomplish His Plan or implement His Will,..I instinctively wince. Sin is simply disobedience to His Will. So if he uses sin to advance His Plan, then he uses something which is against His Will in order to advance His Will. This would entail God as inconsistent. But we know He is immutable and Perfect Righteousness. Therein lies the apparant conflict. ~ Cvenger

No, you have a bad definition of sin. Therefore, your conclusions are all wrong. Acts 2,4 and about a thousand verses beyond that all prove you wrong.

BTW, have you plainly apologized to nobdysfool yet, or are you bound and determined to strut about like a pompous peacock in your intellectual pride?

Woody.

P.S. My apologies if I left of a Calvinist or two.