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To: P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg; xzins; Alex Murphy; Gamecock; Wrigley; drstevej; OrthodoxPresbyterian; ...
""Before Abraham was, I AM." What does that mean to you? He didn’t say, before Abraham was, I was, too. He used the present tense, signifying that not only was he there, but that he is there."

But this passage does not say, "Before Abraham was I am now".

This passage is not attempting to give us understanding of just how God relates to our experience of Time. It is communicating God's Sovereignty.

You are attempting to utilize a passage in a way that it was never intended to be used. That is not crying "Witch Witch, burn her."

Now, I have a question for you.

Can that which is created (everything except God) exist without the continual proactive sustaining power of the Will of God?

Jean
322 posted on 12/05/2003 1:17:25 PM PST by Jean Chauvin (Sola Scriptura---Sola Fida---Sola Gracia---Sola Christus---Soli Deo Gloria)
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To: Jean Chauvin
But this passage does not say, "Before Abraham was I am now".

This is the "Back to the future " version of Scripture interpretation..

Remember the lie of Eden ..ye shall be as gods.

Fully on display here

388 posted on 12/06/2003 9:15:39 AM PST by RnMomof7 (Deut7:7)
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