BTW the new testament scriptures were not even remotely available to the bulk of the TRUE body of Christ until the 19th and 20th centuries. Prior to that the only people with access to the fullness of this "perfection" were corrupt priests and stuffy theologians-- people who, for the most part, were probably not to be included in the True Church of Christ.
If access to the new testament cannon eliminated the need for spiritual gifts, then these spiritual gifts that Paul mentions were clearly needed by the laity throughout the dark ages and into the finishing stages of the reformation! Yet the Church was busy during those times quelching the spirit and inisisting that these "gifts" had ceased because the priests were in possession of this so-called perfection --something the liaty didn't need because they had the priests-- and there was no longer a need for the deep spiritual reflection and edification that accompanies these gifts. The corrupt priesthood held the keys and the laity held their purses open so that they could be robbed of their money as well as their souls.
Your argument has no basis in scripture. It has not basis in fact. It has no basis in logic. Try again.
He did, you might not have read the whole post.
Maybe one day we will agree on something.
Would you explain the logical implication that this passage refers to Christ's second coming?
Can you point me to references of spiritual gifts being manifest today or in the recent past?
Have you witnessed or posses these gifts yourself?