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To: RnMomof7
I want to thank you for the patience and graciousness of your posts. I know I am "arguing," but much of it is more as an exploration than as trying to convince you of a belief I strongly hold, (although I couldn't blame you for thinking otherwise). I find this debate style helpful, I hope I'm not too tiresome. Anyway...

Will God save every man that chooses correctly? If you believe that then you have constrained God and made salvation the payment to man for choosing correctly ..God then owes man salvation.

I see what you are saying. It is a subtle disctinction. But to answer your question, I tentatively contend that yes, God will save every man that chooses correctly. But I don't see it as man constraining God, I see it as God constraining Himself. He is always faithful and just, and this is self-imposed constraint.

Salvation is not owed any man. To (over)simplify it, lets say I offer you a gift. You can either take it, or not. If you take it, do I then owe it to you? I want you to have it, but I'm not going to force you to take it. If you take it, how then am I constrained by your choice? You have submitted to my will, not vice-versa.

A salvation not by grace. For the grace was applied after the work. God saw the man choose correctly so God then chose Him correct? Man has "free will" but God is bound by the decision of the man .

There was certainly grace in the providing of the gift in the first place. There was no other way to ever get the gift. I could never earn the gift.

God can not refuse anyone He wants or save any that were not smart enough to make the correct choice

Again, my contention is that God does not refuse anyone, nor does He want to. Nor does He force anyone to become Christian. But, you do bring to mind Paul's conversion, and that was powerful, it would appear he receive more grace than some. I'm not sure how that fits in. But, I don't think election implies compulsion. Where is the faith, if I am perforce made a Christian?

And, I don't think I was mis-applying the "choose life" passage. Many think it was an intentionally doubled meaning.

Sorry to burst your bubble , but you have men deciding to choose God . Seeing that all men have the grace in your belief all men are then spiritually alive , they are no longer spiritually dead. They are now able to do what a dead man can not do , save himself with his choice.

Well, that's not exactly what I was saying. I agreed that all men are spiritually dead. That the Holy Spirit touches them, raising them to a status of free will - raising them to Adamic status, if you will. At that time, and only then, are they able to make a free-will choice to accept God's gift. So, we're up to double-grace - grace to have the gift available, grace to be quickened to be able to accept the gift. I see no room for boasting.

What makes one choose and not another? Is one smarter or more able? If it is Gods desire that all be saved why did he not freely give each man the amount of grace necesary to make an affirmative decision?

Excellent questions. Working backwards, had He given all men so much grace that they all accepted, how would that be different from compulsion? They would not be men, but robots. God wants our free-will faith. Why do some choose differently? I don't know. Love of themself, love of their sin, they think they don't need God. Certainly some are more blessed. Some of the blessing is passed down from previous generations - the blessing of the father's faith. Not a popular idea in our culture, where we feel every man deserves exactly the same amount of chance as everybody else. But supportable biblically.

Where does one get the faith to believe?.

You saved the best question for last. I don't know. I realize that if I answer "God," then I seem to be working against myself here. But how can it be anything other than God? If I say man, then I place man too high. Hmm. Perhaps, God placed within man the potential for faith, that is stirred during the quickening. Thus, the faith comes from God, but the grace is still not irrestible. If Paul had turned down the gift, God would have raised a different man.
73 posted on 05/15/2003 10:24:31 AM PDT by FactQuest
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To: FactQuest
Will God save every man that chooses correctly? If you believe that then you have constrained God and made salvation the payment to man for choosing correctly ..God then owes man salvation.

I see what you are saying. It is a subtle disctinction. But to answer your question, I tentatively contend that yes, God will save every man that chooses correctly. But I don't see it as man constraining God, I see it as God constraining Himself. He is always faithful and just, and this is self-imposed constraint.

Did God all through out the history of the bible choose for himself a special people? When did God change?

Salvation is not owed any man. To (over)simplify it, lets say I offer you a gift. You can either take it, or not. If you take it, do I then owe it to you? I want you to have it, but I'm not going to force you to take it. If you take it, how then am I constrained by your choice? You have submitted to my will, not vice-versa.

So it is not really a gift right? It is a promise of a gift until a man does the work of opening it?
How do we then deal with the cross as a completed act?
Was it complete then or is it only completed when a man is smart enough to open it?

A salvation not by grace. For the grace was applied after the work. God saw the man choose correctly so God then chose Him correct? Man has "free will" but God is bound by the decision of the man .
There was certainly grace in the providing of the gift in the first place. There was no other way to ever get the gift. I could never earn the gift.

But in a sense you did earn it. You unlike most men were smart enough to open the gift. If you had not worked then God would not or could not??

Again, my contention is that God does not refuse anyone, nor does He want to. Nor does He force anyone to become Christian. But, you do bring to mind Paul's conversion, and that was powerful, it would appear he receive more grace than some. I'm not sure how that fits in. But, I don't think election implies compulsion. Where is the faith, if I am perforce made a Christian?

The bible is a book that is replete with God choosing men. Is that a different God?

Well, that's not exactly what I was saying. I agreed that all men are spiritually dead. That the Holy Spirit touches them, raising them to a status of free will - raising them to Adamic status, if you will. At that time, and only then, are they able to make a free-will choice to accept God's gift. So, we're up to double-grace - grace to have the gift available, grace to be quickened to be able to accept the gift. I see no room for boasting.

If God is giving the grace to all men to raise them to the Ademic level why did He put man under the curse at all? It seems the curse serves a spiritual purpose. But you are saying that none of mankind today is under that curse spiritually.That being the case we must have produced at least one sinless man in all the time since the fall...could you point me to him?

I am sorry Fact but it does seem to me that you have plenty to boast about. You took the grace and used it while so many squander it..God owes you that promise

Excellent questions. Working backwards, had He given all men so much grace that they all accepted, how would that be different from compulsion? They would not be men, but robots. God wants our free-will faith.

Could you give me a citation on that ?

Why do some choose differently? I don't know. Love of themself, love of their sin, they think they don't need God. Certainly some are more blessed. Some of the blessing is passed down from previous generations - the blessing of the father's faith. Not a popular idea in our culture, where we feel every man deserves exactly the same amount of chance as everybody else. But supportable biblically.

You are correct on that, so you think all men have the same opportunity to open the gift but some are more equal than others?

Where does one get the faith to believe?.
You saved the best question for last. I don't know. I realize that if I answer "God," then I seem to be working against myself here. But how can it be anything other than God? If I say man, then I place man too high. Hmm. Perhaps, God placed within man the potential for faith, that is stirred during the quickening. Thus, the faith comes from God, but the grace is still not irrestible. If Paul had turned down the gift, God would have raised a different man.

I always save the best question till last. Of course saving faith is a gift from God. It is listed as a spiritual gift is it not?
We know that faith itself does not save. It is what (or who)the faith is in that saves. So the faith that leads men to repentance is God given, without it men can not be saved.

2Ti 2:25 In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth;

If saving faith is a gift from God then it is clear that all men do not have equal access to it.

So now my closing question fact.
Would you please define two words for me?
Grace and Mercy

74 posted on 05/15/2003 11:06:08 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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