I may not be understanding your point.Are you saying this to refute that we do not need anything but the bible for knowledge of God? or that we need something else to be saved?
IMO, this verse is talking about christians maturing through the tyring of our faith.
Becky
It is a linguistic refutation of the 2 Tim 3:16 "argument" for the sufficiency of Scripture. When Scripture says "if you have x, then you may be perfect," if x is "Scripture" you use this argument to say that Scripture alone is sufficient to make one "perfect."
When x is "steadfastness," you do not argue that steadfastness alone is sufficient to make one perfect.
The wording is identical, yet the idea taken is not. You are not consistent. 2 Tim 3:16 does not aruge for the sufficiency of Scripture alone, anymore than James 1:4 argues for the sufficiency of "steadfastness" alone.
SD