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To: the_doc
My point was that the apostle's language argues that they were not embodied.

Right, but by the end of verse 4 they were embodied because of their participation in the first resurrection. ;^)

65 posted on 09/12/2002 12:57:18 PM PDT by ksen
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To: ksen; OrthodoxPresbyterian; Jean Chauvin; Matchett-PI; CCWoody; RnMomof7; Jerry_M; jude24
Well, you really do resort to complicated explanations.

I prefer what I would dare to call an "Occam's Razor approach" (which approach also excuses me from having to read things into John 5:28-29!).

70 posted on 09/12/2002 1:40:53 PM PDT by the_doc
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