To: P-Marlowe
***Are we still in agreement?*** No, we are not.
***His sovereignty is reflected in his Knowledge that many will not.***
Acts 2:23 wasn't simple foreknowledge, it was His determinant counsel. Pre-planned not pre-viewed. The word "foreknow" is more than pre-view as I understand the greek term.
***And Man's free will in reflected in the fact that man can act against God's will [PRECEPTIVE or DECRETIVE?] and against God's desire.***
If you mean in the above preceptive will, I agree. If you mean decretive will, I disagree.
Further, the natural man's will is free to sin only -- because that is his nature.
65 posted on
09/13/2002 11:39:50 AM PDT by
drstevej
To: drstevej
If you mean in the above preceptive will, I agree. If you mean decretive will, I disagree. Expain the difference in common elizabethan english so that we can all understand.
Are there things in the universe that God allows, but that he would have prefered did not occur (such as sin)? Or does God prefer that sin occurs so that his "decretive" will is satisfied?
Do you see the paradox?
To: drstevej
BTW steve, where in the bible are these terms PRECEPTIVE and DECRETIVE? Are the words in the Greek and Hebrew different for "Preceptive will" than they are for "Decretive will?" Or is this just something they teach in theology school? :-)
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