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To: Don'tMessWithTexas; fortheDeclaration; Revelation 911; The Grammarian
1. I agree with your #1 response.
2. We agree that the entire Bible is in harmony.
3. I disagree with your interpretation of scripture in #3.
4. You say, God hardened Pharoah and that was his bidding. Is the "his" referring to God or Pharaoh? That is, are you saying "God hardened Pharaoh and that was God's bidding?" Or are you saying, "God hardened Pharaoh and that was Pharaoh's bidding?"
5. all those predestined will come and ultimately be glorified. You say this is the interpretation of the John 6 verses. Is that correct?
6. You cite Romans 9:20 to say, non-elect cannot make any claim of unrighteousness against God for making them a vessel of dishonor. How is that not the same as total inability?
7. You left it intact, so I understood correctly. We disagree.
8. You leave 8 intact, agreeing with it, but adding that total depravity is the reason they are not able to seek God. We disagree.

Can you clarify #'s 4,5,6?

50 posted on 07/27/2002 9:23:21 AM PDT by xzins
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To: xzins
4. You say, God hardened Pharoah and that was his bidding. Is the "his" referring to God or Pharaoh? That is, are you saying "God hardened Pharaoh and that was God's bidding?" Or are you saying, "God hardened Pharaoh and that was Pharaoh's bidding?"

Well, in a sense, it was the will of God, because he did it. In another sense, it appears as though it was the will of Pharoah. In other words, Pharoah did not do what he did not want to do.

5. all those predestined will come and ultimately be glorified. You say this is the interpretation of the John 6 verses. Is that correct?

The Bible says that those that are predestinated will be called and eventually glorified. In addition, the Bible says that all those chosen by the Father will come to the Son. That is not my interpretation of these verses, it is what these verses say. If you disagree, please provide an alternative interpretation.

6. You cite Romans 9:20 to say, non-elect cannot make any claim of unrighteousness against God for making them a vessel of dishonor. How is that not the same as total inability?

I prefer to call it total depravity. All men are born dead in sin. Furthermore, by nature they do not seek after God as He is revealed in the Bible. This applies to ALL men, elect and non-elect. God so works in the heart of the elect to make them willing to embrace Jesus Christ. God does not so work in the heart of the non-elect. Hence, both can sit under the preaching of the gospel. One can be moved of God, the other will remain unmoved even though both hear the same message. God enables the one to receive and believe, God does nothing to enable the other. Hence they remain in their native state of rebellion against God.

It appears to me that you either believe that Christ came to save all men, which would make you a universalist or you are an Arminian, who believes that God's salvation depends somehow on the appropriate exercise of the will of men. Both would trample under foot the perfect sacrifice of Christ on calvary. If Christ died for all, there could be no punishment for sin. Therefore, no one could be judged for their unbelief and God must, lay aside His righteous requirements. If salvation depended on man's assent to it, then God is left wringing his hands after sacrificing His only son for the object of his salvation. Both are dangerous places to be. The problem to me is that you want to place man on an equal footing with God. Beware.

55 posted on 07/27/2002 11:26:30 AM PDT by Don'tMessWithTexas
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